Romans 3:1-18 Answers Questions to Go Deeper “Then” is translated “therefore” by some translations. “Therefore” best points to the Greek text. What would Paul be referencing with with “therefore”? His previous discourse on the Jewish person’s state of condemnation despite their identity as Jews. Based on Paul’s answer in verse 2 He knows the answer to the two questions before he asks them. Why would he use these two questions? Who would he be speaking for in the two questions? Paul is giving the hypothetical Jewish critics questions. If there was absolutely no advantage or benefit Jews over Gentiles, then what would be the answer to the answer to the two questions? However, what is the answer (2)? He would have to say there is no advantage or benefit. But he says the opposite…Great in every respect. What does the phrase “first of all” imply about the advantages or benefits? How many advantages are listed (2)? Where is the list completed (hint Romans
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